Can someone help me thank you

Answer:

0.915

Step-by-step explanation:

Hopefully this helps

Answer:

It's 50 ^^

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.2333 = 23.33% probability he passes exactly one test

Step-by-step explanation:

We have these following probabilities:

3/4 probability that he passes the first test.

If he passes the first test, 4/5 probability that he passes the math test.

If he does not pass the first test, 1/3 probability that he passes the math test.

What is the probability he passes exactly one test

Two scenarios:

Pass first(3/4 probability) and fails second(1/5 probability).

Fails first(1/4 probability) and passes second(1/3 probability). So

[tex]p = \frac{3}{4}*\frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{4}*\frac{1}{3} = \frac{3}{20} + \frac{1}{12} = \frac{9 + 5}{60} = \frac{14}{60} = 0.2333[/tex]

0.2333 = 23.33% probability he passes exactly one test

Answer:

4530.55

Step-by-step explanation:

2800 x 6.2% = 173.6

2800 + 173.6 = 3157.96

repeat this step 8 times because you need to find the money in the account after 8 years. Tell me if you need further explanation

Answer:

-15

Step-by-step explanation:

The (/) is also a division sign

-15/3 + 22 =17

-5 + 22= 17

Answer:

its -5

Step-by-step explanation:

So you subtract by 22 then it is -5 Then you multiply by 3 then it is -15

Answer:

1/7 ;

0.0034

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

X = 1/14, 1/7, 3/14

n = number of observations = 3

Since, probability of X is equally likely ;

P(X) = Σp(x) = 1 ; p(x) = 1/n = 1/3

The mean, m ;

Σx*p(x) = (1/3 * 1/14) + (1/3 * 1/7) + (1/3 * 3/14)

= 1/42 + 1/21 + 3/42

= (1 + 2 + 3) / 42

= 6 / 42

= 1/7

The variance :

Σx²*p(x) - m²

((1/3) * (1/14)^2) + ((1/3) * (1/7)^2) + ((1/3) * (3/14)^2) - (1/7)^2

= 0.0238095 - 0.0204081

= 0.0034014

= 0.0034

Answer:

42in

Step-by-step explanation:

First divide up the shape.

The bottom will cut off to form a 6x3 rectangle which will have an area of 18in.  Next is the top portion which is a trapezoid. You can figure out the area two ways. You can divide it further into two triangles and a rectangle. Or you can use the trapezoid formula. In this case I feel like dividing it. So since the top is 2 inches the bases of the two side triangles must be 2 due to the bottom base of the whole shape being 6. (1/2*2*6)*2 = 12in. Lastly the center rectangle is 2*6 (got 6 from 9-3) which is also 12. So the top half added together 12+12 equals 24in. When adding both top and bottom portions (18+24) you get 42in.

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

45%???????????

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Is not a type of magnet a domain magnet

Answer:

Write and solve an equation of proportions:

Step-by-step explanation:

4/5 ton 5/6 bridge

-------------- = ------------------

x 1 bridge

Then (4/5) * (1 bridge) = (5/6 bridge)x.

Solve this for x by mult. both sides of the equation by 6/5:

(6/5)(4/5) = x

24/25 tons of concrete are needed to complete the entire bridge.

Answer:

its #2 (on the top right)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

From (2, 1) move up one and over four

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

diameter = 12 m so

the radius is d/2=12/2=6 m

A = pi*r² = 3.14 *6² = 113.04 m²

Answer:

113.04

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(y+3)*5

im pretty sure this is correct

Answer:

Fixed

x=5.66

Step-by-step explanation:

This is an around about way since it's not a right triangle.

lets call the segment line that bisects the lower right angle= M.

The two triangles created would be similar. So:

4/6=M/(x+3)

4x+12=6M

M=(4x+12)/6

and

(x+3)/(x+4)=M/6

(6x+18)=Mx+4M

M=(6x+18)/(x+4)

since M=M

(4x+12/6=(6x+18)/(x+4)

(x+4)(4x+12)=6(6x+18)

4x^2+12x+16x+48=36x+108

4x^2+28x+48=36x+108

4x^-12x-60=0

x^2-3x-15=0

Factor

(x+2.65)(x-5.66)=0

x=5.66

Answer:

146.3m²

Step-by-step explanation:

area of quarter circle=1/4π×8²

=50.3m²

area of the square=s²

8×8=64m²

area of the triangle=1/2bh

1/2×8×8=32m²

total area=50.3+64+32=146.3m²

Answer:

9:1

Step-by-step explanation:

Try to reduce the ratio further with the greatest common factor (GCF).  

The GCF of 72 and 8 is 8  

Divide both terms by the GCF, 8:

72 ÷ 8 = 9

8 ÷ 8 = 1  

The ratio 72 : 8 can be reduced to lowest terms by dividing both terms by the GCF = 8 :  

72 : 8 = 9 : 1  

Therefore:

72 : 8 = 9 : 1

32/p=10/440

10p=14080

p=1408

Answer:

18.5

Step-by-step explanation:

to do this question you need to move the decimals. When your denominator has a decimal in it, you need to get rid of it. in order to do that, you have to move the decimal on both numbers so the numbers being divided would be 1184/64. Just divide from there

The division of the given numbers results as 19.

A decimal number is the representation of a number in whole and a part. The whole is represented by an integer while the part is equivalent to a number divided by the order of 10.

The given expression is 118.4 ÷ 6.4.

The division can be done step by step as follows,

Step 1:

Both the decimal numbers have only one digit after the decimal.

Thus, both can be multiplied by 10 to remove the decimal as follows,

118.4/6.4 = (118.4 × 10)/(6.4 × 10)

              = 1184/64

Now, the equivalent expression becomes as 1184 ÷ 64.

Step 2:

Divide 1184 and 64 with their largest common factor as follows,

(1184 ÷ 16)/(64 ÷ 16) = 76/4

Step 3:

Again divide 76 and 4 to get 19 as follows,

76/4 = 19

Hence, the given expression can be simplified to give 19 as the result.

To know more about decimal number click on,

brainly.com/question/4708407

#SPJ2

Answer:

Option (4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Jordan spent 5 hours studying for 3 test with equal amount of time studying for each test.

On the number line, there are 3 small segments between each number.

Every small segment will represent time = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] hours

Total number of small segments = 15

If Jordan takes 3 equal durations for the study of each test,

Total number of small segments for each test = [tex]\frac{15}{3}=5[/tex]

Now we can plot these points on the number line.

Further count the segments for the answer ( 1 hour plus 2 small segments)

= 1 + [tex]2\times \frac{1}{3}[/tex]

= [tex]1\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Therefore, time given for studying each test = [tex]1\frac{2}{3}[/tex] hours

Option (4) will be the answer.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (-1, -2)

Step-by-step explanation:

The difference between the coordinates of the image and the coordinates of the original is the same for both points.

  X - (0, 2) = (5, 2) -(6, 6)

  X = (5, 2) -(6, 6) +(0, 2) = (5-6+0, 2-6+2)

  X = (-1, -2)

The image of the point after translation is (-1, -2).

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Q1

Q2

Q3

Q4

Q5