The mean length of a group of fish is 14.2 inches. A fish that is 41 inches long
joins the group. How does this fish's length affect the mean?
A. The new mean length will be less than 14.2 inches.
B. The new mean length will still be 14.2 inches.
C. The new mean length will be 41 inches.
D. The new mean length will be greater than 14.2 inches.

Answer:

d) 16, 19, 14 + x

e) x + 20, 30, 33, 15, y - 20, x+x+20=60 and James would be 20.

f) 13

g) 120

Step-by-step explanation:

D.

(1) 14 + 2 = 16

(2) 14 + 5 = 19

(3) 14 + x

E.

(1) x + 20

(2) 10 + 20 = 30

(3) 13 + 20 = 33

(4) 35 - 20 = 15

(5) y - 20

(6) x + (x + 20) = 60 | 2x + 20 = 60 | 2x = 40 | x = 20

F.

200 - 148 = 52

52 / 4 = 13 each

G.

500 + 100 = 600

600 / 5 = 120 without the discount

Hope this helps!

Answer:

c² = n²

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the 2 equations

a² + b² = c² → (1)

a² + b² = n² → (2)

Substitute a² + b² = c² into (2)

c² = n²

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

96 + 2² / 2

96 + 4 / 2

100 / 2

50

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 10 because there are only two odd numbers in here and the best. Even so when you put that in two digit odd number then it'll just be interchangeable those four numbers that aren't at the end of

Answer:

72

Step-by-step explanation:

For a five-digit number to be odd it's one digit must be 1,3,5.

So there can be no repeats of any digits.

Let's look at numbers with one's digit being 1.

There are 4 ways to choose the tabs digit.

After that you can choose the hundreds digit 3 ways.

The thousands digit can then be chosen 2 ways.

Then finally the ten-thousands digit can be chosen 1 way.

4×3×2×1=24

24 odd numbers with one's digit being 1 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

That means there are 24 odd numbers with one's digit being 3 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

Also means there are 24 odd numbers with one's digit being 5 that are 5 digits long only using 1,2,3,4, and 5 with no repeats.

3(24)=72

Answer:

3 11/15 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

4 1/3 - 3/5

4 5/15 - 9/15

3 20/15 - 9/15

3 11/15 miles

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can say that because the men do 1/3 of the work in 20 days,

for 10 men:

20 days = 1/3 total work

Because we need the house built in 30 days, and 20 days have already passed, we only have 30-20=10 days left. Furthermore, 20/2=10, so in our equation of 20 days = 1/3 total work, we can divide both sides by 2 to get

10 days = 1/6 total work

The amount of work we need to get done in 10 days is (all of it) - (1/3 of total work) = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3 = 4/6

Since 10 men can do 1/6 of the work in 10 days, 10*4 =40 men can do 1/6 * 4 = 4/6 of the work in 10 days. This is the amount of work that needs to get done. Therefore, the contractor needs 40 (total workers) - 10 (current workers) = 30 new workers to finish the remaining work in due time

Answer:

it should be 90 I could be wrong

Answer:

C = 6.28 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The circumference of a circle is given by

C = pi *d where d is the diameter

C = 3.14(2)

C = 6.28 ft

what is the circumference of a circle with a diameter of 2 feet? use 3.14 for pie

A. 6.28ft

B. 12.56ft

C. 5.14ft

D.3.14ft

Formula for getting the circumference

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \star \: \orange{\underline{ \purple{ \boxed{ \red{\sf Circumference \: of \: the \: circle = 2πr}}}}}[/tex]

Given data :

Diameter = 2 ft

π = 3.14

Radius = diameter/2 = 2 ft/2 = 1 ft

So the circumference is

Therefore, the perimeter is 6.28 ft

Answer:

69.3

Step-by-step explanation:

if you put it into 2D, you get a right triangle with leg lengths 62 (vertical height) and 31 (1/2 the base's length). Using Pythagorean's Theorem you get sqrt((62^2)+(31^2))= 69.318. Rounding to the nearest tenth you get 69.3

Answer:

that is the thousands place value.

the place value of 3 in 3546.= 3000

Answer:

[tex] \frac{1}{6} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{7}{5} \times \frac{5}{12} - \frac{3}{12} \times \frac{7}{5} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{7}{5} ( \frac{5}{12} - \frac{3}{12} ) - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{7}{5} \times \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{15} = \frac{7}{30} - \frac{2}{30} = \frac{5}{30} = \frac{1}{6} [/tex]

Answer:

D y=2/3 x +1

  y= -3/2 x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Perpendicular lines have slopes that multiply to -1

The equations are written in slope intercept form

y = mx+b where m is the slope

A 1/5* 5 = 1  not perpendicular

B 2/3 * 3/2 = 1  not perpendicular

C -1/5 * -5 = 1  not perpendicular

D 2/3 * - 3/2 = -1   perpendicular

Answer:

x= -12 & y=24

Step-by-step explanation:

given,

x+y=12.......... equation (i)

2x=3y........eq(ii)

let,

x=12-y.......eq(iii)

from eq(ii)

2(12-y)=3y

y=24

putting the value of y in eq(iii)

x=12-24

x= -12

Answer: 24 cans

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

George has 9 fence

It requires [tex]2\frac{2}{3}[/tex] cans to paint a fence

So, 9 fence required

[tex]\Rightarrow 9\times 2\dfrac{2}{3}\\\\\Rightarrow 9\times \dfrac{8}{3}\\\\\Rightarrow 3\times 8=24\ \text{cans}[/tex]

9 fence requires 24 cans

Answer:

are you look for finaincl loan

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\frac{x+4}{4x-4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The first hose pumps out water at a rate of

(161 gal)/(3 h) = 161/3 gal/h

The second hose fills the pool at a rate of

(161 gal)/(2 h) = 161/2 gal/h

Working together, they can fill the pool at a rate of

(161/3 + 161/2) gal/h = 805/6 gal/h

so that it would take

(161 gal) / (805/6 gal/h) = 161×6/805 h = 6/5 h = 1.2 h = 1 h 12 min

to fill the pool.

Answer:

10.52

Step-by-step explanation

Answer:

6 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

A=b1+b2/2*h

Fill in the equation with what we know

21=8+x/2*3

Isolate x

Quick steps: 21/3=7*2=14-8=6

x=6

Answer:

d) 7.61​

Step-by-step explanation:

384.085 ÷ 50.5 = 7.605643

d is the only possible value (u get it when u round up to 3 sf)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

384.085 d i v i d e d  b y 50.5

                   =  7.61

Answer:

2.5777

Step-by-step explanation:

The 6 in "2.577681" is greater than 5, so the value increases by 1.

Answer:

I think It would be A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think its A

Step-by-step explanation:

(if its not im sorry :( )

Answer:

The rate of change of the top of the ladder with respect to x is -x/y

Step-by-step explanation:

The given parameters are;

The length of the ladder = 10 ft.

The horizontal distance of the bottom of the ladder from the wall = x

The distance of the top of the ladder from the floor = y

By Pythagoras's theorem, we have;

10 = y² + x²

Therefore, we have;

x² = 10 - y²

d(x²)/dx = 2·x =  d(10 - y²)/dx = -2·y·dy/dx

∴ 2·x = -2·y·dy/dx

dy/dx = 2·x/(-2·y) = -x/y

Therefore, the rate of change of the top of the ladder with respect to x, dy/dx = -x/y.

Answer:

a. What is the explanatory variable (independent variable)? (1 point)

Number of fans sold.

b. What is the response variable (dependent variable)? (1 point)

Outside temperature.

c. Circle the best range for the correlation coefficient. (1 point)

(–1 to –0.7) (–0.7 to –0.3) (–0.3 to 0) (0 to 0.3) (0.3 to 0.7) (0.7 to 1.0)

d. Based on this scatterplot, does a rise in temperature cause more fans to be sold? Why or why not? (3 points)

Yes because a rise in temperature causes fan sales to go up because people buy fans when it’s hot to cool off.

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right on AP3X. Hope this helps!

The answers are in the red rectangles with the work.

Let me know if something is unreadable.

Answer:

20.53 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Speed = Distance/Time = 30/7

Time = Distance / Speed

= 5280/30/7

= 1232 seconds / 60 = 20.53 minutes

Answered by Gauthmath